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Post Info TOPIC: Pitching Rule Question


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Pitching Rule Question


I'm posting this more out of curoisty than anything else. Here's the situation. I was pitching agsinst on Sunday - nobody on base - I'm in my windup - my cleat got caught on something - I stopped my delivery - the ball did not leave my hand. The umpire called a ball. I've been pitching since I was 8 eight years old (so I've been pitching for like 13 or 14 years). I am clumsy and have done this quite regurarly but have never had a ball called for being goofy. I'm too lazy to go looking up in a rule book what the rule actually is. Does anybody know the rule? It made no impact on the outcome of the game (at least I hope not - it was a 9am game and I was still kinda sleepy). I'd be interested to see what we come up with.

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Guru

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Spoken like a true Cubbie, who obviously is hanging around the cooler on a regular basis.

You balked, and with nobody on base, a balk is is enforced with the addition of a ball to the count.

Jonny Martin

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Guru

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Is it really a balk? I thought (maybe wrongly) that a balk was with the intention to deceive a runner. I have watched a few (maybe more than a few) major league games where the pitcher starts his windup and then stops, with no consequence. How is this different?

If in my game, I would have questioned the call.

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Ray Demers 55+ Damn Yankees (Manager)


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I don't think it is a balk.. I have seen Andy Pettite start and stop quite often among others. I don't see anything in the rules about a false start without runners on. In fact, it says that if the ball slips out of your hand and doesn't cross the foul line it is a no pitch.

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Guru

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Just to add to the confusion, I always thought the key word in that ruling was "intention," a loose phrasing that gave the umpires discretionary judgment.

In my view, it was an overzealous enforcement of the rule, narrowly defined. Should have been: no harm, no foul.

This is not at all to knock the umpire; just one of those semi-obscure baseball questions.

JP



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Senior Member

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I think MLB rule 8.01(d) applies in this situation:

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8.01(d)
If the pitcher makes an illegal pitch with the bases unoccupied, it shall be called a ball unless the batter reaches first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise.
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So, it comes down to what is the definition of an illegal pitch. Is starting and stopping a pitching motion before releasing a ball an illegal pitch? In the MLB rules, the only defined illegal pitches are:
1. A quick pitch
2. Pitching while not on the pitchers plate

If you look at the comment for rule 8.01(d)
Comment: A ball which slips out of a pitchers hand and crosses the foul line shall be called a ball; otherwise it will be called no pitch. This would be a balk with men on base.

So, if no runners are on base and a pitcher throws a ball into the ground from the pitcher's plate and it doesn't roll into foul territory, it's not a pitch. I would assume if the pitcher started his motion and did not release the baseball, it would also be a "no pitch".

In my opinion, a no pitch should have been called.


***************************************************************
If there were runner(s) on base(s), then rule 8.05(a) would apply:

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8.05(a)
If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when --
(a) The pitcher, while touching his plate, makes any motion naturally associated with his pitch and fails to make such delivery;
============



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Senior Member

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Well there you are then. Steve admits that he is habitually clumsy, and therefore to stumble and fall is considered a part of his natural motion by this particular umpire. End of story unless the batter attempts to drag a bunt and then its a strike because the ball was dead when he threw his bat out there near the mound towards it.

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Hall of Famer

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The high school rule was enforced.
According to the National Federation of State High Schools Associations Rules Book, Page 43, Article 4-d: failing to pitch to the batter in a continuous motion immediately after any movement or any part of the body such as he habitually uses in his delivery is a balk.

According to the Rules Book, this is one of the definitions of an illegal pitch for which one of the penalties is as follows:
The ball is dead immediately when an illegal pitch occurs. If there is no runner, a ball is awarded to the batter. If there is a runner, such illegal act is a balk. In both situations, umpire signals a dead ball.

I wonder about the MLB rule. If a pitcher defaces a ball or applies a substance to the ball before a pitch, I'd think that would be an illegal pitch, too.

Jim Konstantakis





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