Can't find a rule on this. Last night's game against the Pepper's - my position was second base. Our half of the inning was over and I was headed out to my position. On the way out, I picked up the ball in front of the pitchers mound and flipped it to our pitcher (Todd Calhoun). The umpire informed me that I was now the pitcher and had to pitch to one batter. I thought he was kidding - he wasn't. Does anybody have some insight on this? I looked all over the rule book - nada, nil Thank you!
In my opinion, in this instance the umpire is wrong. MLB rule 3.08 states:
3.08 If no announcement of a substitution is made, the substitute shall be considered as having entered the game when -- (1) If a pitcher, he takes his place on the pitcher’s plate; (2) If a batter, he takes his place in the batter’s box; (3) If a fielder, he reaches the position usually occupied by the fielder he has replaced, and play commences; (4) If a runner, he takes the place of the runner he has replaced. (b) Any play made by, or on, any of the above mentioned unannounced substitutes shall be legal.
Since you did not "take your place on the pitcher's plate" you were not a legal substitute. I discovered on the Internet a similar situation where a manager came to the mound to make a pitching change. The first baseman came toward the mound and started warming up with the second baseman. But since he did not throw from the pitcher's plate and the manager never officially announced a replacement pitcher, the original pitcher was allowed to resume pitching.
Last year during one of my CDMSBL games, there was a similar incident. For giggles, a fielder on his way to his position picked up the ball at the mound and threw a pitch from the rubber to the catcher. Since he took his position at the pitcher's plate, he was now officially the pitcher and had to pitch to one batter before the original pitcher could return.
Steve - I would concur that you must be on the pitcher's plate (rubber) to be considered the substitute. Not being at the game (to see it for myself), and where you were positioned when you made the toss to Todd would have a bearing on the ruling. The applicable rules are as Kevin stated in 3.08, and the following:
3.05 (a) The pitcher named in the batting order handed the umpire-inchief, as provided in Rules 4.01 (a) and 4.01 (b), shall pitch to the first batter or any substitute batter until such batter is put out or reaches first base, unless the pitcher sustains injury or illness which, in the judgment of the umpire-in-chief, incapacitates him from pitching. (b) If the pitcher is replaced, the substitute pitcher shall pitch to the batter then at bat, or any substitute batter, until such batter is put out or reaches first base, or until the offensive team is put out, unless the substitute pitcher sustains injury or illness which, in the umpire-in-chief’s judgment, incapacitates him for further play as a pitcher. (c) If an improper substitution is made for the pitcher, the umpire shall direct the proper pitcher to return to the game until the provisions of this rule are fulfilled. If the improper pitcher is permitted to pitch, any play that results is legal. The improper pitcher becomes the proper pitcher as soon as he makes his first pitch to the batter, or as soon as any runner is put out. Rule 3.05(c) Comment: If a manager attempts to remove a pitcher in violation of Rule 3.05(c) the umpire shall notify the manager of the offending club that it cannot be done. If, by chance, the umpire-in-chief has, through oversight, announced the incoming improper pitcher, he should still correct the situation before the improper pitcher pitches. Once the improper pitcher delivers a pitch he becomes the proper pitcher.
9.01 (c) Each umpire has authority to rule on any point not specifically covered in these rules.
9.01 is key, if in the umpire's judgement, the actions delayed the game, or made a farce of game action, or in his judgement determined that this was a substitution, would base his decision on rules 3.05, 3.08 by utilizing 9.01(c).
Good one - Thanks. I was more stunned than anything and pissed that I didn't know the rule. I was going to have the entire team go out and touch the ball all at the same time (not really but the tought crossed my mind).
Got the out - and then walked back to 2nd base. Good thing it wasn't you - nothing like seing a BP fastball from a cold pitcher. Oh wait - that's how I throw all the time now!
In the quoting of the rule book, I keep coming back to "umpire's discretion" and conclude: They had none.
For what is the intention of that rule? Why does it exist?
All I can think of is that it prohibits a team from intentionally misleading the opponent ("Oh, he's bringing the lefty, I better pinch hit" or something like that). Clearly, that wasn't the case.
In this instance, it was in the 3rd inning, before warm-ups; the catcher is in the dugout getting dressed.
I think we saw an umpire over-eager to establish his authority, while completely missing the point. It was foolish and pointless. Steve is a guy coming off shoulder surgery. He wasn't warmed up properly Should he be given fifteen minutes to get loose? Was he senselessly put at risk?
Ultimately, we did it, laughed it off, no big deal. Crazy, nutty umpires. Ho-ho. But I think a quality umpire uses his discretion at that point, allows common sense to enter the picture, and, hey, maybe even explained to us how technically he could have enforced an obscure rule. My two cents.
I recall at our second game vs the Peppers earlier this year at CBA, one of the umps stated that same rule. If you touch the ball while it's on the mound you MUST pitch to one batter. It actually happened two years ago with the Mets, when our 1b picked up the ball and had to pitch to one batter, (he walked him).
I don't know why we have the rule, but I'm only in the league three years but I know it exists and it doesn't make any sense...
